THE SCHEDULED CASTES AND THE SCHEDULED TRIBES (PREVENTION OF ATROCITIES) ACT, 1989
1. The presumption under Section 8(b) arises only if it is proved that the offence was a sequel to:
a. Any past event
b. Existing dispute
c. Future threat
d. Random incident
2. Under Section 8(c), if the accused had personal knowledge of the victim or his family, the Court shall presume that the accused:
a. Intended to commit the offence
b. Had motive
c. Was aware of the caste or tribal identity of the victim
d. Was related to the victim
3. The presumption under Section 8(c) is drawn by the:
a. Police
b. Magistrate
c. Court
d. Prosecutor
4. The presumption regarding awareness of caste or tribal identity under Section 8(c) is:
a. Conclusive
b. Irrebuttable
c. Rebuttable
d. Optional
5. The words “unless the contrary is proved” appearing in Section 8 indicate:
a. Burden always lies on prosecution
b. No burden on accused
c. Shift of burden on accused to rebut the presumption
d. Automatic conviction
6. Section 8 primarily alters the normal rule relating to:
a. Cognizance
b. Jurisdiction
c. Burden of proof and presumptions
d. Limitation
7. Which of the following statements correctly reflects Section 8?
a. Presumptions apply only after conviction
b. Presumptions apply during investigation
c. Presumptions apply during prosecution once foundational facts are proved
d. Presumptions apply only in appeal
8. Section 9 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Forfeiture of property
b. Conferment of powers on State Government officers
c. Special Courts
d. Presumption of offences
9. Section 9 allows the State Government to confer powers notwithstanding anything contained in:
a. IPC only
b. CrPC only
c. The Code or any other provision of this Act
d. Evidence Act only
10. The State Government may confer powers under Section 9 if it considers it:
a. Mandatory
b. Necessary or expedient
c. Optional only after conviction
d. Only with Central Government approval
11. The powers under Section 9 can be conferred for:
a. All offences in the country
b. Prevention of, and coping with, any offence under this Act
c. Civil disputes
d. Revenue matters
12. Powers under Section 9 may also be conferred for:
a. Single case only
b. Any case or class or group of cases under this Act
c. Only repeated offences
d. Only offences under IPC
13. The powers under Section 9 are conferred by:
a. Oral order
b. Notification in the Official Gazette
c. Internal memo
d. Police circular
14. Officers to whom powers are conferred under Section 9 are:
a. Only police officers
b. Any officer of the State Government
c. Judicial officers
d. Public prosecutors only
15. The powers conferred under Section 9 include the powers exercisable by a police officer under the Code, particularly:
a. Powers of civil attachment
b. Powers of arrest, investigation, and prosecution of persons before any Special Court
c. Powers to draft legislation
d. Powers to award punishment directly
16. Section 9(2) requires:
a. Police officers to act independently
b. Officers of police and other officers of Government to assist the officer referred to in sub-section (1)
c. Only Special Courts to supervise officers
d. Officers to take approval from Central Government
17. Assistance under Section 9(2) applies for the execution of:
a. Only criminal law
b. The provisions of the Act, any rule, scheme or order made thereunder
c. Only orders under CrPC
d. Only executive orders
18. Section 9(3) clarifies that the provisions of the Code shall:
a. Not apply at all
b. Apply strictly without adaptation
c. Apply so far as may be to the exercise of powers by an officer under sub-section (1)
d. Override the SC/ST Act
19. Powers conferred under Section 9 are:
a. Absolute and independent of supervision
b. Limited to investigation only
c. Similar to police powers but specific to prevention, investigation, and prosecution under this Act
d. Only for filing FIRs
20. Section 9 ensures that State Government officers can act:
a. In consultation with the judiciary only
b. For all offences in India
c. For prevention or handling of offences under the SC/ST Act in a district or part thereof
d. Only after special order by Central Government
21. Which of the following is true about officers acting under Section 9?
a. They have powers independent of CrPC
b. They exercise powers only after conviction
c. They are assisted by all police and other government officers
d. Their powers apply outside India
22. Section 10 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Attachment of property
b. Removal of person likely to commit offence
c. Enhanced punishment
d. Presumption as to offences
23. Under Section 10(1), a Special Court can issue a removal order based on:
a. Conviction only
b. Complaint or police report
c. Executive notification
d. FIR only
24. Section 10 applies specifically to offences under:
a. Any criminal law
b. Chapter II of the SC/ST Act
c. IPC Sections 302 and 307
d. Civil disputes
25. The areas where Section 10 applies include:
a. All districts in India
b. Scheduled Areas or tribal areas as referred to in Article 244 of the Constitution
c. Only urban areas
d. Only State capitals
26. Section 10 also applies to areas identified under:
a. Section 14 of the Act
b. Clause (vii) of sub-section (2) of section 21
c. Section 6 of IPC
d. Section 5 of CrPC
27. The Special Court may direct the person to remove himself:
a. Permanently
b. To any place of his choice
c. Beyond the limits of the specified area, by such route and within such time as specified in the order
d. Only after conviction
28. The removal period under Section 10(1) cannot exceed:
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Five years
29. The person directed to remove himself under Section 10 must:
a. Return daily for reporting
b. Not return to the area from which he was removed for the period specified in the order
c. Appear before police every week
d. Submit property documents
30. Under Section 10(2), the Special Court must also:
a. Impose fine
b. Communicate the grounds of the removal order to the person
c. Notify Central Government
d. Send a copy to local police only
31. Section 10(3) allows the removal order to be:
a. Extended automatically
b. Revoked or modified
c. Ignored by the person
d. Appealed to the Supreme Court only
32. For revocation or modification under Section 10(3), the reasons must be:
a. Oral
b. Recorded in writing
c. Communicated through police only
d. Optional
33. A representation against the removal order under Section 10(3) must be made:
a. Within 15 days
b. Within 30 days from the date of the order
c. Within 90 days
d. Any time before conviction
34. Representation under Section 10(3) may be made by:
a. Only the person against whom the order is made
b. Only the Special Court
c. The person or any other person on his behalf
d. Police officer
35. The Special Court’s powers under Section 10 are intended primarily to:
a. Punish offenders
b. Prevent offences in sensitive areas
c. Enhance fines
d. Confiscate property
36. Section 11 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Enhanced punishment
b. Procedure on failure of person to remove himself from area and re-entry
c. Attachment of property
d. Presumption as to offences
37. Under Section 11(1), the Special Court may take action if a person:
a. Commits a new offence
b. Fails to remove himself from the area as directed under Section 10
c. Appeals against a removal order
d. Submits a representation to Government
38. Section 11(1) also applies if a person, having removed himself, enters the area:
a. With verbal permission of police
b. Within the specified period without written permission from the Special Court
c. After the expiry of removal order only
d. Only for a family emergency
39. If a person violates Section 10 directions, the Special Court may:
a. Issue a fine only
b. Cause him to be arrested and removed in police custody to a place outside such area
c. Confiscate his property
d. Impose community service
40. Section 11(2) allows the Special Court to:
a. Extend the removal period indefinitely
b. Permit temporary return of the person to the area for a specified period and conditions
c. Impose enhanced punishment
d. Refer the matter to the District Magistrate
41. Temporary return under Section 11(2) may require the person to:
a. Execute a bond with or without surety for due observation of conditions
b. Pay a fine
c. Notify police only
d. Submit property details
42. Under Section 11(3), the Special Court may:
a. Revoke the removal order permanently
b. Revoke any permission for temporary return at any time
c. Impose additional fine
d. Refer the matter to Central Government
43. Section 11(4) provides that a person returning with permission must:
a. Observe the conditions imposed by the Special Court
b. Report daily to police
c. Avoid public places
d. Limit communication with victims
44. At the expiry of the temporary period under Section 11(4), the person must:
a. Remain in the area indefinitely
b. Remove himself outside the area and not return without fresh permission
c. Return immediately without any permission
d. Execute property bond
45. If a person re-enters the area without fresh permission or violates conditions under Section 11(5), the Special Court may:
a. Grant leniency
b. Impose fine only
c. Cause him to be arrested and removed in police custody to a place outside such area
d. Refer to civil court
46. Section 11 ensures that:
a. Temporary permission does not allow permanent violation of removal orders
b. Police can act independently of Special Court
c. Conditions can be ignored if verbal consent is given
d. Orders are advisory only
47. The main objective of Section 11 is to:
a. Strengthen preventive powers of Special Courts
b. Enhance fines
c. Provide compensation to victims
d. Simplify property forfeiture
48. Which of the following actions is allowed by the Special Court under Section 11?
a. Arrest and removal without court order
b. Permitting temporary return with conditions
c. Automatic revocation of Section 10 orders
d. Issuing removal orders outside jurisdiction
49. Arrest under Section 11 may be executed by:
a. Any Government officer
b. Police custody under the direction of the Special Court
c. Magistrate only
d. District Collector
50. Section 12 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Forfeiture of property
b. Taking measurements and photographs of persons against whom Section 10 order is made
c. Enhanced punishment for repeat offences
d. Presumption of offences
51. Under Section 12(1), a person against whom a Section 10 order is made shall:
a. Submit his property documents
b. Allow his measurements and photographs to be taken if required by the Special Court
c. Report to police daily
d. Appear before a magistrate only
52. The measurements and photographs under Section 12 must be taken by:
a. Any government officer
b. Police officer
c. Magistrate
d. Victim
53. Section 12(2) states that if a person resists or refuses to allow taking of measurements or photographs:
a. The Special Court can issue a fine
b. It is lawful to use all necessary means to secure the taking thereof
c. Only verbal persuasion is allowed
d. Police cannot proceed
54. Resistance or refusal under Section 12(3) is deemed to be an offence under:
a. Section 307 IPC
b. Section 186 IPC
c. Section 499 IPC
d. Section 34 IPC
55. Section 12(4) provides that when a Section 10 order is revoked:
a. Measurements and photographs are retained by police
b. All measurements and photographs (including negatives) must be destroyed or made over to the person concerned
c. They can be used for other cases
d. They are archived indefinitely
56. Section 12 ensures that the taking of measurements and photographs is:
a. Compulsory if ordered by Special Court
b. Optional
c. Delegated to magistrates only
d. Limited to urban areas
57. The purpose of Section 12 is primarily to:
a. Strengthen preventive measures by keeping accurate records of persons under Section 10 orders
b. Impose punishment for non-compliance
c. Confiscate property
d. Enhance police powers in all criminal cases
58. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 12?
a. Persons can refuse measurements without consequences
b. Resistance to taking measurements is an IPC offence (Section 186)
c. Only photographs can be taken, not measurements
d. Negative copies of photographs are retained permanently
59. Section 12 applies specifically to:
a. All criminal offenders
b. Persons against whom a Section 10 removal order is made
c. Repeat offenders under Section 5
d. Witnesses in Special Courts
60. Section 13 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Taking measurements and photographs
b. Penalty for noncompliance of order under Section 10
c. Attachment of property
d. Presumption as to offences
61. Under Section 13, any person contravening a Special Court order made under Section 10 shall be:
a. Warned only
b. Punishable with imprisonment and fine
c. Subject to civil liability only
d. Referred to the police for mediation
62. The imprisonment under Section 13 may extend to:
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years
63. Section 13 provides that in addition to imprisonment, the offender may also be liable to:
a. Community service
b. Fine
c. Property forfeiture
d. Confiscation of passport
64. The primary purpose of Section 13 is to:
a. Enforce compliance with removal orders under Section 10
b. Allow police discretion in enforcement
c. Penalize only after multiple violations
d. Impose fines only
65. Which of the following is true under Section 13?
a. Only repeated violations are punishable
b. Noncompliance with Section 10 order is a punishable offence
c. Imprisonment is mandatory, fine is optional
d. It applies only in Scheduled Areas
66. Section 14 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Forfeiture of property
b. Special Court and Exclusive Special Court
c. Presumption as to offences
d. Penalty for noncompliance of Section 10
67. Under Section 14(1), the State Government shall establish an Exclusive Special Court for one or more Districts:
a. By executive order only
b. With the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the High Court, by notification in the Official Gazette
c. By verbal instruction to district judges
d. Only for metropolitan areas
68. In Districts with a lower number of cases under this Act, the State Government may:
a. Not try the cases at all
b. Specify the Court of Session as a Special Court to try offences under this Act
c. Refer cases to civil courts
d. Wait until more cases accumulate
69. The Courts established or specified under Section 14(1) have the power to:
a. Try only after approval from State Government
b. Directly take cognizance of offences under this Act
c. Refer all cases to District Magistrates
d. Conduct only preliminary hearings
70. Section 14(2) imposes a duty on the State Government to:
a. Conduct investigations itself
b. Establish an adequate number of Courts to ensure cases are disposed of within two months as far as possible
c. Delegate trials to police officers
d. Extend trials indefinitely
71. Under Section 14(3), in every trial in the Special Court or Exclusive Special Court, proceedings shall:
a. Be adjourned weekly
b. Continue from day-to-day until all witnesses in attendance have been examined
c. Take place once a month
d. Depend on police convenience
72. The Special Court or Exclusive Special Court may adjourn proceedings beyond the next day only if:
a. The prosecution requests it
b. Reasons are recorded in writing
c. The accused requests it
d. Victim is unavailable
73. The proviso under Section 14(3) states that trials relating to offences under this Act should, as far as possible:
a. Be completed within one month from filing of the charge sheet
b. Be completed within six months
c. Be completed within two months from the date of filing of the charge sheet
d. Have no fixed timeline
74. The primary purpose of establishing Special Courts and Exclusive Special Courts under Section 14 is to:
a. Increase fines and penalties
b. Ensure speedy trial of offences under the Act
c. Replace regular criminal courts
d. Investigate offences
75. Which of the following statements is correct about Special Courts under Section 14?
a. They can only try cases after regular courts
b. They continue trial day-to-day unless adjournment beyond the next day is justified in writing
c. They try cases once a week
d. They do not have power to take cognizance directly
76. Section 14 ensures that trials under the SC/ST Act are:
a. Lengthy and procedural
b. Completed as far as possible within a period of two months from filing of the charge sheet
c. Adjourned until Central Government approval
d. Conducted only in metropolitan courts
77. In Districts where fewer cases are recorded, the Court of Session acts as a Special Court with powers to:
a. Investigate offences
b. Directly take cognizance of offences under the Act
c. Confiscate property
d. Grant bail independently
78. The concurrence of which authority is required to establish a Special Court or Exclusive Special Court?
a. Chief Minister
b. Central Government
c. Chief Justice of the High Court
d. District Magistrate
79. Section 14(3) emphasizes day-to-day continuation of trial primarily to:
a. Ensure speedy trial and reduce adjournment delays
b. Facilitate investigation
c. Allow prosecution to prepare better
d. Reduce court workload
80. The Special Courts under Section 14 are required to:
a. Follow only state procedural rules
b. Complete trials within two months as far as possible and take cognizance directly
c. Delegate trials to police officers
d. Wait for appeal decisions before taking cognizance
81. The Karnataka Amendment to Section 14 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 substitutes the words:
a. “To try offences under this Act” with “to take cognizance of offences under this Act as a court of original jurisdiction and to try such offences”
b. “Special Court” with “Exclusive Special Court”
c. “State Government” with “Central Government”
d. “High Court” with “Supreme Court”
82. Section 14A of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Forfeiture of property
b. Appeals from judgments, sentences, or orders of Special Courts and Exclusive Special Courts
c. Removal of persons likely to commit offences
d. Appointment of Special Public Prosecutors
83. Under Section 14A(1), an appeal from a Special Court or Exclusive Special Court lies to:
a. District Court
b. Supreme Court
c. High Court, both on facts and law
d. Magistrate
84. Section 14A(2) provides that an appeal shall lie to the High Court against:
a. Only the conviction
b. Only the sentence
c. Orders granting or refusing bail by the Special Court or Exclusive Special Court
d. Police investigation reports
85. The time period for preferring an appeal under Section 14A(3) is:
a. 30 days from judgment
b. 60 days from judgment
c. 90 days from the date of judgment, sentence, or order appealed from
d. 120 days from the date of judgment
86. Under Section 14A(3) proviso, the High Court may entertain an appeal after 90 days if:
a. The appellant requests informally
b. The appellant had sufficient cause for not preferring the appeal within 90 days
c. The police approves
d. The trial court permits
87. Section 14A(3) further provides that no appeal shall be entertained after:
a. 120 days
b. 150 days
c. 180 days from the date of judgment
d. 200 days
88. Under Section 14A(4), every appeal preferred shall, as far as possible, be disposed of within:
a. One month from the date of admission
b. Three months from the date of admission
c. Six months from the date of admission
d. Twelve months from the date of admission
89. Section 14A overrides which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
a. Section 302
b. Section 378(3) and general appeal provisions
c. Section 125
d. Section 439 only
90. The primary purpose of Section 14A (Appeals) is to:
a. Allow unlimited appeal rights
b. Ensure a fast-track appellate mechanism for judgments, sentences, and bail orders from Special Courts and Exclusive Special Courts
c. Delay finality of judgments
d. Grant discretionary powers to police
91. Section 15 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Special Courts
b. Special Public Prosecutor and Exclusive Public Prosecutor
c. Removal of offenders
d. Penalty for noncompliance of Section 10
92. Under Section 15(1), for every Special Court, the State Government shall:
a. Assign any police officer to conduct cases
b. Specify a Public Prosecutor or appoint an advocate with at least seven years of practice as a Special Public Prosecutor
c. Appoint a magistrate as prosecutor
d. Delegate prosecution to the victim
93. The appointment or specification of a Special Public Prosecutor under Section 15(1) must be made:
a. Orally
b. By internal office memo
c. By notification in the Official Gazette
d. By police order
94. Section 15(2) provides that for every Exclusive Special Court, the State Government shall:
a. Use the same Special Public Prosecutor as for other courts
b. Specify an Exclusive Special Public Prosecutor or appoint an advocate with at least seven years of practice
c. Delegate to a civil lawyer
d. Refer cases to regular courts
95. The minimum practice experience required for an advocate to be appointed as a Special or Exclusive Special Public Prosecutor is:
a. Three years
b. Five years
c. Seven years
d. Ten years
96. The purpose of appointing a Special Public Prosecutor or Exclusive Special Public Prosecutor is to:
a. Ensure speedy trial and professional conduct of cases in Special Courts
b. Investigate offences
c. Grant bail independently
d. Draft legislation for SC/ST protections
97. Appointment of Special Public Prosecutors under Section 15 is made:
a. Only in metropolitan areas
b. For each Special Court and each Exclusive Special Court separately
c. Once for all courts in a State
d. By the Central Government only
98. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 15?
a. Advocates with less than seven years’ experience may be appointed
b. Only the police can conduct prosecution in Special Courts
c. Advocates appointed as Special Public Prosecutors must have at least seven years of practice
d. Only judges can act as Special Public Prosecutors
99. Section 15 ensures that the prosecution in Special Courts is conducted by:
a. Any government officer
b. Experienced advocates specified as Special or Exclusive Special Public Prosecutors
c. Magistrates
d. Civil servants
100. Notification for appointment under Section 15 is made:
a. Verbally in court
b. In the Official Gazette
c. Through local police circular
d. Through Central Government Gazette only
101. Under Section 15A(1), it is the duty of the State to make arrangements for:
a. Protection of accused persons from intimidation
b. Protection of victims, their dependents, and witnesses from intimidation, coercion, inducement, or violence
c. Enforcement of civil rights of victims
d. Payment of compensation to victims only
102. Section 15A(2) mandates that a victim shall be treated with:
a. Speed and secrecy
b. Fairness, respect, and dignity, considering age, gender, educational disadvantage, or poverty
c. Neutrality only
d. Only legal assistance
103. According to Section 15A(3), a victim or his dependent has the right to:
a. Participate in the investigation personally
b. Receive reasonable, accurate, and timely notice of any Court proceeding, including bail proceedings
c. Conduct cross-examination of witnesses independently
d. File criminal complaints directly against the accused
104. Section 15A(4) empowers a victim or his dependent to:
a. Conduct the trial on their own
b. Apply to the Special Court or Exclusive Special Court to summon parties, documents, or witnesses
c. Decide the bail of the accused
d. Challenge judgments of the High Court
105. Under Section 15A(5), a victim or his dependent is entitled to:
a. Represent the accused in Court
b. Be heard at any proceeding under the Act on matters such as bail, discharge, release, parole, conviction, or sentence and file written submissions
c. Decide on acquittal of the accused
d. Direct police investigation
106. Section 15A(6) requires the Special Court or Exclusive Special Court to provide, notwithstanding the CrPC:
a. Only legal aid to victims
b. Complete protection, travelling and maintenance expenses, socio-economic rehabilitation, and relocation to victims, dependents, informants, or witnesses
c. Compensation for property loss only
d. Employment to victims’ dependents
107. Section 15A(7) requires the State to:
a. Inform the accused of all protection measures for witnesses
b. Inform the concerned Special Court about the protection provided to victims, dependents, informants, or witnesses, which the Court shall periodically review
c. Decide on bail matters for witnesses
d. Maintain a separate registry of victims
108. Under Section 15A(8), the Court may take measures including:
a. Publicly disclosing all witness identities
b. Concealing names and addresses of witnesses, issuing non-disclosure directions, and taking immediate action on harassment complaints
c. Ignoring harassment complaints
d. Assigning victims to private investigation agencies
109. According to the first proviso of Section 15A(8), inquiry or investigation into a harassment complaint:
a. Must be conducted within the main trial
b. Shall be tried separately from the main case and concluded within two months from receipt of the complaint
c. Can be delayed indefinitely
d. Requires consent of the accused
110. According to the second proviso of Section 15A(8), where a harassment complaint is against a public servant, the Court shall:
a. Allow the public servant to continue interfering
b. Restrain the public servant from interfering with the victim, informant, or witness in any matter related or unrelated to the pending case, except with the Court’s permission
c. Refer the matter to the State Government only
d. Suspend the victim’s rights
111. Under Section 15A(9), the duty of the Investigating Officer and Station House Officer is to:
a. Record complaints of victims, informants, or witnesses against intimidation, coercion, inducement, or violence, whether orally or in writing
b. Only investigate offences after the trial begins
c. Advise the accused about the complaint
d. Forward the complaint to civil authorities only
112. As per Section 15A(9), a photocopy of the First Information Report (FIR) must be:
a. Given to the victim, informant, or witness at the discretion of the officer
b. Immediately given at free of cost to the victim, informant, or witness
c. Kept confidential and only shared with the police
d. Sent to the media for public record
113. Section 15A(10) mandates that:
a. Only the accused’s statements shall be video recorded
b. All proceedings relating to offences under this Act shall be video recorded
c. Video recording is optional for minor offences
d. Only witness statements are to be video recorded
114. Section 15A(11) requires the State to specify an appropriate scheme to ensure implementation of rights and entitlements of victims and witnesses primarily:
a. To punish offenders more severely
b. To ensure victims’ access to justice and protection
c. To regulate legal fees for advocates
d. To monitor police work efficiency only
115. Which of the following is not explicitly mentioned as a State responsibility under Section 15A(11)?
a. Providing copies of the charge sheet at free of cost
b. Providing maintenance expenses to victims and dependents
c. Conducting investigation independently without police
d. Providing relief in cash or kind to atrocity victims
116. According to Section 15A(11)(e), the State must arrange for:
a. Only medical aid to victims
b. Food, water, clothing, shelter, medical aid, transport facilities, or daily allowances to victims
c. Legal aid exclusively
d. Only police protection
117. Section 15A(11)(i) grants the victim or their dependents the right to:
a. Only verbal updates on investigation
b. Information on the status of investigation and charge sheet and a copy of the charge sheet at free of cost
c. Decide the timing of the trial
d. Conduct cross-examination of witnesses
118. Under Section 15A(11)(m), the State must:
a. Execute arrests personally
b. Give adequate briefing on the case, preparation for trial to victims or dependents, and provide legal aid for the purpose
c. Conduct trials independently without courts
d. File civil suits on behalf of victims
119. Section 15A(12) provides that atrocity victims or their dependents have the right to:
a. Take assistance from Non-Government Organisations, social workers, or advocates
b. Only rely on police assistance
c. Represent themselves in all criminal trials without legal aid
d. Choose the investigating officer
120. Section 16 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Appointment of Special Public Prosecutors
b. Power of State Government to impose collective fine
c. Taking measurements and photographs
d. Appeals against Special Court orders
121. Section 16 makes which Act applicable, so far as may be, for imposition and realization of collective fines?
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 (Section 10A)
c. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
d. Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013
122. The provisions of Section 16 apply to:
a. Individual fines only
b. Collective fines and all matters connected therewith under this Act
c. Property forfeiture
d. Bail orders
123. The primary purpose of Section 16 is to:
a. Ensure speedy trials
b. Allow the State Government to impose and realize collective fines for offences under the Act
c. Specify Special Courts
d. Appoint Special Public Prosecutors
124. Section 16 references which mechanism for collective fine?
a. Section 10A of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
b. Section 11 of the SC/ST Act
c. Section 378 of CrPC
d. Section 14 of IPC
125. Section 17 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Collective fines
b. Preventive action by law and order machinery
c. Appeals against Special Court orders
d. Appointment of Special Public Prosecutors
126. Under Section 17(1), which officers may declare an area prone to atrocities and take preventive action?
a. Only District Magistrates
b. District Magistrate, Sub-divisional Magistrate, any other Executive Magistrate, or a police officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police
c. Only the State Home Secretary
d. Any police constable
127. Preventive action under Section 17(1) can be taken when an officer has reason to believe that:
a. Any crime has already occurred
b. A person or group not belonging to SC/ST is likely to commit or has threatened to commit an offence under the Act
c. Property has been damaged
d. Victims file a civil suit
128. The officer may declare an area prone to atrocities if he is of the opinion that:
a. There is political unrest
b. There is sufficient ground for proceeding and to maintain public order, peace, and tranquility
c. Local elections are scheduled
d. Police personnel are available
129. Section 17(2) provides that which provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure apply, so far as may be, for preventive action?
a. Chapters I, II, III
b. Chapters VIII, X, and XI
c. Sections 300–304
d. Section 378 only
130. Under Section 17(3), the State Government may:
a. Appoint Special Public Prosecutors
b. Make one or more schemes specifying how officers should take preventive action and restore security for SC/ST members
c. Confiscate property collectively
d. Refer cases to the High Court only
131. The primary purpose of Section 17 is to:
a. Punish offenders after offences occur
b. Prevent offences under the SC/ST Act and maintain public order and security for SC/ST members
c. Grant bail to offenders
d. Establish Special Courts
132. Preventive action under Section 17 includes:
a. Only arrests after offence
b. Any measures necessary to maintain peace, good behaviour, and tranquility in areas prone to atrocities
c. Property forfeiture
d. Civil litigation
133. Section 17 emphasizes the role of:
a. Judiciary only
b. Law and order machinery and executive officers in preventing atrocities
c. Victims for enforcement
d. Central Government officials only
134. A “prone-to-atrocities” area under Section 17(1) is declared based on:
a. Personal discretion of the police officer without inquiry
b. Reasonable belief after receiving information and necessary inquiry that offences may occur under the Act
c. Annual government notification
d. Public complaints only
135. Section 18 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Appointment of Special Public Prosecutors
b. Non-application of Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure
c. Preventive action by law and order machinery
d. Appeals from Special Court orders
136. Under Section 18, Section 438 of the CrPC, which deals with:
a. Anticipatory bail
b. Property attachment
c. Filing complaints
d. Appeals to the High Court
137. Section 18 specifies that Section 438 CrPC shall not apply to:
a. Civil disputes involving SC/ST members
b. Cases involving the arrest of any person accused of committing an offence under the SC/ST Act
c. Property offences only
d. Cases under the IPC, 1860
138. The primary purpose of Section 18 is to:
a. Ensure that anticipatory bail under CrPC Section 438 is not available to persons accused of offences under the SC/ST Act
b. Grant anticipatory bail automatically
c. Allow preventive action
d. Facilitate property confiscation
139. Section 18 ensures that the accused under the SC/ST Act:
a. Can seek anticipatory bail like any other offence
b. Cannot avoid arrest by relying on Section 438 CrPC
c. Are exempt from investigation
d. Must appear in civil court
140. Section 18 emphasizes the stringent nature of SC/ST Act offences by:
a. Excluding anticipatory bail provisions
b. Increasing fines only
c. Allowing private settlements
d. Deferring trial timelines
141. Which of the following is true under Section 18?
a. Section 438 CrPC applies to SC/ST Act offences
b. Accused of SC/ST Act offences cannot rely on anticipatory bail under Section 438 CrPC
c. Section 438 CrPC applies only after conviction
d. Section 438 CrPC is replaced by Section 10 of the SC/ST Act
142. Section 18A of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Appeals against Special Court orders
b. No preliminary enquiry or approval required for registration of FIR or arrest
c. Collective fines
d. Preventive action by law and order machinery
143. Under Section 18A(1)(a), for offences under this Act:
a. A preliminary enquiry is mandatory before registering an FIR
b. Preliminary enquiry shall not be required for registration of a First Information Report
c. FIR can only be registered with High Court approval
d. FIR is optional
144. Section 18A(1)(b) provides that the investigating officer:
a. Needs prior approval from senior police to arrest a person accused under the Act
b. Shall not require approval for the arrest, if necessary, of any person accused of an offence under the Act
c. Can arrest only with the consent of the victim
d. Can detain for 24 hours without FIR
145. Section 18A(1) emphasizes that:
a. Only civil procedures apply
b. No procedure other than that provided under this Act or the Code of Criminal Procedure shall apply
c. The accused can choose the procedure
d. The State Government can create separate procedures
146. Section 18A(2) reiterates that:
a. Section 438 of the CrPC (anticipatory bail) shall not apply to offences under this Act
b. Section 438 of the CrPC applies to all offences
c. Only High Court can grant anticipatory bail
d. Section 438 applies after investigation
147. Section 18A ensures that accused persons under the SC/ST Act:
a. Can avoid arrest using anticipatory bail
b. Cannot rely on preliminary enquiry or CrPC Section 438 to delay registration of FIR or arrest
c. Are exempt from arrest
d. Can seek permission from Magistrates before FIR
148. The main purpose of Section 18A is to:
a. Speed up registration of FIR and arrest for offences under the SC/ST Act
b. Delay investigations
c. Allow discretion for anticipatory bail
d. Refer offences to civil authorities
149. Which of the following is true under Section 18A?
a. Preliminary enquiry is always required
b. Approval for arrest is optional
c. No preliminary enquiry or approval is required, and anticipatory bail under Section 438 CrPC does not apply
d. Only property offences are covered
150. Section 19 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Appeals from Special Court orders
b. Non-application of Section 360 CrPC and the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
c. Collective fines
d. Preventive action by law and order machinery
151. Under Section 19, Section 360 of the CrPC deals with:
a. Anticipatory bail
b. Probation of offenders (release on probation)
c. Property attachment
d. Appeals
152. Section 19 provides that the provisions of Section 360 CrPC and the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 shall not apply to:
a. Any person under the age of 18
b. Any person above the age of 18 found guilty of an offence under the SC/ST Act
c. Only government officials
d. Only offences involving property
153. The main purpose of Section 19 is to:
a. Allow probation for first-time offenders
b. Exclude offenders under the SC/ST Act from the benefit of probation or release on probation
c. Provide anticipatory bail
d. Refer cases to civil courts
154. Section 19 ensures that an offender above 18 years found guilty under the SC/ST Act:
a. May be released on probation under Section 360 CrPC
b. Cannot be released on probation under Section 360 CrPC or the Probation of Offenders Act
c. Is automatically granted anticipatory bail
d. Can opt for civil settlement
155. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 19?
a. Section 360 CrPC applies to all SC/ST Act offences
b. Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 applies to adult offenders under the SC/ST Act
c. Both Section 360 CrPC and the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 do not apply to adult offenders under the SC/ST Act
d. Only juvenile offenders are excluded
156. Section 19 emphasizes the:
a. Stringent nature of offences under the SC/ST Act for adult offenders
b. Discretionary release of offenders
c. Civil remedies
d. State Government discretion for bail
157. Section 20 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Appeals from Special Court orders
b. The SC/ST Act overriding other laws
c. Preventive actions by law and order machinery
d. Appointment of Special Public Prosecutors
158. Under Section 20, the provisions of the SC/ST Act shall have effect:
a. Only if approved by the Central Government
b. Notwithstanding anything inconsistent in any other law, custom, usage, or instrument having effect by virtue of any other law
c. Only if there is no conflict with existing laws
d. Only in Scheduled Areas
159. The primary purpose of Section 20 is to:
a. Limit the application of the SC/ST Act to certain areas
b. Ensure that the SC/ST Act overrides any inconsistent provisions in other laws, customs, or usages
c. Provide anticipatory bail
d. Enable civil remedies for victims
160. Section 20 applies to:
a. Only the Indian Penal Code
b. Any law in force, custom, usage, or instrument that is inconsistent with the SC/ST Act
c. Only State laws
d. Only central enactments
161. Section 20 establishes the principle that the SC/ST Act is:
a. Subordinate to all other laws
b. Independent but can be overridden by local customs
c. A special law that overrides inconsistent laws, customs, and usages
d. Applicable only to civil disputes
162. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 20?
a. Customary practices conflicting with the SC/ST Act will prevail
b. The SC/ST Act provisions will prevail over inconsistent provisions of any other law in force
c. The SC/ST Act applies only if other laws permit
d. The SC/ST Act does not apply to Scheduled Areas
163. Section 21 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Preventive arrest
b. Powers of police officers
c. Duty of Government to ensure effective implementation of the Act
d. Special Courts
164. Under Section 21(1), which Government is primarily responsible for taking measures for effective implementation of the Act?
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. District Magistrate
d. High Court
165. The duty of the State Government under Section 21(1) is:
a. Optional
b. Discretionary without rules
c. Subject to rules made by the Central Government
d. Subject to approval of Parliament
166. Section 21(2) states that the measures listed are:
a. Exhaustive and mandatory only
b. Illustrative and without prejudice to the general duty
c. Applicable only to urban areas
d. Enforceable only by courts
167. Which of the following facilities must be provided to victims of atrocities under Section 21(2)(i)?
a. Free housing
b. Legal aid and adequate facilities to access justice
c. Government employment
d. Educational reservations
168. Provision of travelling and maintenance expenses under Section 21(2)(ii) applies to:
a. Police officers only
b. Accused persons
c. Witnesses including victims during investigation and trial
d. Judges and prosecutors
169. Section 21(2)(iii) emphasizes:
a. Preventive detention
b. Economic and social rehabilitation of victims of atrocities
c. Compensation only
d. Reservation benefits
170. Appointment of officers to supervise prosecutions under the Act is provided under:
a. Section 21(2)(iv)
b. Section 21(2)(ii)
c. Section 21(3)
d. Section 20
171. Under Section 21(2)(v), the State Government may set up:
a. Special Courts
b. Committees at appropriate levels
c. Vigilance cells only at district level
d. Parliamentary boards
172. Periodic survey of the working of the Act for suggesting improvements is provided under:
a. Section 21(2)(vi)
b. Section 21(1)
c. Section 21(3)
d. Section 14A
173. Identification of areas where SC/ST members are likely to be subjected to atrocities is required under:
a. Section 17
b. Section 21(2)(vii)
c. Section 18A
d. Section 16
174. The role of the Central Government under Section 21(3) is to:
a. Conduct trials
b. Frame State-specific rules
c. Coordinate measures taken by State Governments
d. Appoint Special Courts
175. Under Section 21(4), the Central Government must place a report before Parliament:
a. Every six months
b. Every two years
c. Every year
d. Only on demand
176. The report placed before Parliament under Section 21(4) relates to:
a. Only Central Government actions
b. Only State Government actions
c. Measures taken by both Central and State Governments
d. Judicial performance
177. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. Section 21 creates penal liability
b. Section 21 is procedural only
c. Section 21 creates administrative and welfare obligations on governments
d. Section 21 applies only after conviction
178. Section 22 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Preventive detention
b. Protection of action taken in good faith
c. Bar on anticipatory bail
d. Punishment for neglect of duty
179. Section 22 provides protection against which of the following?
a. Departmental inquiry only
b. Civil suit only
c. Suit, prosecution or other legal proceedings
d. Criminal trial only
180. Protection under Section 22 is available to:
a. Only police officers
b. Only judicial officers
c. Central Government, State Government, officers, authorities and any other person
d. Only public servants
181. The condition precedent for availing protection under Section 22 is that the act must be:
a. Lawful
b. Authorized in writing
c. Done in good faith
d. Approved by the State Government
182. Section 22 protects actions which are:
a. Done under CrPC only
b. Done or intended to be done under this Act
c. Done under IPC
d. Done under any special law
183. Which of the following proceedings is NOT barred under Section 22?
a. Suit
b. Prosecution
c. Other legal proceedings
d. Proceedings for acts done without good faith
184. The expression “good faith” in Section 22 primarily implies:
a. Honest intention without malice
b. Absence of negligence
c. Judicial approval
d. Prior sanction
185. Section 22 acts as a:
a. Penal provision
b. Substantive offence
c. Protective immunity clause
d. Procedural mandate
186. Protection under Section 22 extends to actions which are:
a. Finally adjudicated lawful
b. Successfully prosecuted
c. Intended to be done under the Act in good faith
d. Declared valid by courts
187. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. Section 22 provides absolute immunity
b. Section 22 bars all proceedings irrespective of mala fide
c. Section 22 protects only bona fide actions under the Act
d. Section 22 applies only to Central Government
188. Section 23 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Power of State Government to issue notifications
b. Power of Central Government to make rules
c. Power of courts to frame procedures
d. Power of Parliament to amend the Act
189. Under Section 23(1), the power to make rules is vested in the:
a. State Government
b. Parliament
c. Central Government
d. High Court
190. Rules under Section 23 are made for the purpose of:
a. Amending the Act
b. Carrying out the purposes of the Act
c. Interpretation of offences
d. Trial of cases
191. Rules under Section 23 must be made by:
a. Circular
b. Executive order
c. Notification in the Official Gazette
d. Parliamentary resolution
192. Every rule made under the Act shall be laid before:
a. State Legislature
b. High Court
c. Each House of Parliament
d. Supreme Court
193. Rules made under the Act must be laid before Parliament for a total period of:
a. Fifteen days
b. Thirty days
c. Sixty days
d. Ninety days
194. The total period of thirty days for laying rules may be comprised in:
a. One session only
b. Two sessions only
c. One session or two or more successive sessions
d. Only the budget session
195. If both Houses of Parliament agree that a rule should not be made, the rule shall:
a. Remain suspended temporarily
b. Be of no effect
c. Apply prospectively
d. Apply with court approval
196. Modification or annulment of a rule under Section 23 shall be:
a. Retrospective
b. Subject to judicial review only
c. Without prejudice to validity of anything previously done
d. Applicable only to future offences
197. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. Rules become invalid if not approved by Parliament
b. Rules automatically lapse after thirty days
c. Parliamentary modification does not affect past actions under the rule
d. Rules can be annulled by State Government
198. Section 23 establishes which form of parliamentary control over delegated legislation?
a. Prior approval
b. Absolute veto
c. Laying with modification/annulment
d. Judicial supervision